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69   richwicks   2021 Oct 6, 2:53pm  

Reality says
4. The French Revolution did not come about due to Feudalistic inequality. The conditions in Germany and in Russia were far more unequal than in France. 18th century France was actually very liberal by the standards of the day (tabloids were making fun of the King and the Queen without consequences). The problem with France was having too many "leftists": too many over-educated professional "students" with little marketable skills. That's why they took their chances in revolution, financed by British money. When Russia finally had similar over-supply of over-educated "students" with little marketable skills a century later, they embraced even more bloody revolutions.


I think this is incorrect.

The French Revolution happened due to a collapse of their monetary system created by John Law. Basically, the money was tightly tied to the valuation of the The Mississippi Company - when it collapsed, the Livre collapsed.

We are taught that the aristocracy was targeted at the start. That's not true. The bankers were targeted first, then the aristocracy. That's who they killed and in that order.

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