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You are correct you suck at math. You left off three zero's. $14,666,666
thunderlips11 says
$110T divided by 7.5M people (1% of the worlds ~7.5B people) = over $14k
I think you used too many zeroes.
110,000,000,000 / 7,500,000 = $14,666
110,000,000,000,000. Dumbass.
Trillion, Billion, Million, Thousand, Hundred. You know 3rd grade math.
Okay, I just copied:
110,000,000,000
from Calc
I am dividing (copying again) by
7,500,000
and I get
14,666.666666667
Okay, I just copied:
110,000,000,000
from Calc
I am dividing (copying again) by
7,500,000
and I get
14,666.666666667
STOP USING 110 BILLION!
I got it now, thanks YUP!
And yes, I did have a very hard time with math in school, and avoid it like the plague.
I only repeat what has been in the news lately:
http://finance.yahoo.com/blogs/daily-ticker/85-of-the-world-s-richest-people-now-own-the-same-amount-of-wealth-as-3-5-billion-of-the-world-s-poorest-142701296.htmlThat's the wealth of the top 1%, not the top 85 people, according to the article.
I don't understand why you guys are arguing over a nitpick like that, though. Whether you're talking about the top 1%, the top 5%, or the top 0.0001%, the point remains that the wealth is concentrated in too few hands.
It is not nitpicking to say that 85 people have 1.3 trillion dollars in personal assets. Bill Gates does not have 1/20 of that, give me a break.
You guys fail to realize is that:
#1 disparity does not matter i.e. the poor in the US are way better off than the middle class in most of the world.
#2 the disparity increases from government intervention. This has happened the most right now and in the early 30's both times was because of the FED intervention.
#3 In the profound words of Jody Chudder, paraphrasing, the scum that keep point out the straw man, keep you monkeys flinging your feces at each other over this stuff, Rs vs Ds 1% vs the rest of us, so you don't take the time to actually look.
I freely admit to making a complete ass of myself in this thread, having a bad case of MEGO syndrome today.
Jesus, you were dividing by trillions and billions in 3rd grade math? I think I was just memorizing multiplication tables back then, like 2x2=16.
I got it now, thanks YUP!
Let me learn you something. There are a thousand thousand in a million, there are thousand million in a billion, there are a thousand billion in a trillion.
Now are fine POTUSs have created debt of 17 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000
I freely admit to making a complete ass of myself in this thread, having a bad case of MEGO syndrome today.
Jesus, you were dividing by trillions and billions in 3rd grade math? I think I was just memorizing multiplication tables back then, like 2x2=16.
Don't feel bad you went to public school
Jesus, you were dividing by trillions and billions in 3rd grade math?
It might have been 4th grade. I am just anal about numbers. Numbers tell a story. You can't fake simple math.
#1 disparity does not matter i.e. the poor in the US are way better off than the middle class in most of the world.
You can keep saying this, but it's still wrong. Inequality is the #1 problem in the US today.
#2 the disparity increases from government intervention. This has happened the most right now and in the early 30's both times was because of the FED intervention.
Again--completely wrong. You are a poor student of history. Government inaction leads to disparity. Laissez Faire leads to inequality. Unrestrained capitalism naturally leads to inequality.
Let me learn you something. There are a thousand thousand in a million, there are thousand million in a billion, there are a thousand billion in a trillion.
Now are fine POTUSs have created debt of 17 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000
Let me learn you the difference between our and are. One is a pronoun, and the other is a verb.
the point remains that the wealth is concentrated in too few hands.
Do this as a mental experiment.
(1) Take everything the rich own -- however you define it -- and subtract it from the Earth.
(2) Now subtract the rich themselves as defined above.
(3) Now divide what's left equally among the remaining people. Call this World#1.
(4) Now put back everything that you subtracted, except for the rich people. Now take everything and again divide it equally and call this World#2.
How different would the life a person in World#1 be from World#2?
Again, the point being, with so many people, even great wealth would soon be exhausted. Therefore, it is creating a sustainable, clean, intelligent society that is of the utmost important.
The "super rich" are a giant clown show to act as a distraction. Anyone with brains can see the pickle in which we are in. It's up the the smart people do what has to be done.
How different would the life a person in World#1 be from World#2?
VERY different. I don't think you comprehend the amount of wealth that the 1% actually has right now. If you did, you wouldn't ask that question.
#1 disparity does not matter i.e. the poor in the US are way better off than the middle class in most of the world.
You can keep saying this, but it's still wrong. Inequality is the #1 problem in the US today.
I explain why your's is tautology.
#2 the disparity increases from government intervention. This has happened the most right now and in the early 30's both times was because of the FED intervention.
Again--completely wrong. You are a poor student of history. Government inaction leads to disparity. Laissez Faire leads to inequality. Unrestrained capitalism naturally leads to inequality.
Why because you say so? once again tautology
Let me learn you something. There are a thousand thousand in a million, there are thousand million in a billion, there are a thousand billion in a trillion.
Now are fine POTUSs have created debt of 17 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000 x 1000
Let me learn you the difference between our and are. One is a pronoun, and the other is a verb.
Yea sometimes I mix up your and you are as well getting old i guess. So fucking what?
I explain why your's is tautology
I'm waiting for the explanation.
Why because you say so? once again tautology
Nope--because history says so. Look at 1929. Look at the history of real wage gains and understand why gains were high in the 1945-1980ish time period, but have basically stopped since.
It is not nitpicking to say that 85 people have 1.3 trillion dollars in personal assets. Bill Gates does not have 1/20 of that, give me a break.
Yeah, it really is a nitpicky thing to have an extended argument about, because the top 1% DOES have $110 trillion, and that's too much money for only the top 1% to have. So what's your point here? You think it's reasonable for the top 1% to have $110 trillion?
#1 disparity does not matter i.e. the poor in the US are way better off than the middle class in most of the world.
The question should be whether the poor in the US are better off than other DEVELOPED countries, and they are not.
the disparity increases from government intervention. This has happened the most right now and in the early 30's both times was because of the FED intervention.
No shit, Sherlock. Why would you assume I "don't realize" that?
#3 In the profound words of Jody Chudder, paraphrasing, the scum that keep point out the straw man, keep you monkeys flinging your feces at each other over this stuff, Rs vs Ds 1% vs the rest of us, so you don't take the time to actually look.
Sorry, what are you trying to say? Sounds like gibberish.
I explain why your's is tautology
I'm waiting for the explanation.
Should read:
I explain why, your's is tautology
Why because you say so? once again tautology
Nope--because history says so. Look at 1929. Look at the history of real wage gains and understand why gains were high in the 1945-1980ish time period, but have basically stopped since.
I'm waiting for an explanation
I'm waiting for an explanation
I've explained it a million times. What question exactly do you have? So I make sure I give you the correct explanation.
The question should be whether the poor in the US are better off than other DEVELOPED countries, and they are not.
Lets see the numbers
#3 In the profound words of Jody Chudder, paraphrasing, the scum that keep point out the straw man, keep you monkeys flinging your feces at each other over this stuff, Rs vs Ds 1% vs the rest of us, so you don't take the time to actually look.
Sorry, what are you trying to say? Sounds like gibberish.
It means that there is so much noise that it distracts people from what is important
Nope--because history says so. Look at 1929. Look at the history of real wage gains and understand why gains were high in the 1945-1980ish time period, but have basically stopped since.
I've explained it a million times. What question exactly do you have? So I make sure I give you the correct explanation.
splain that
Do this as a mental experiment.
(1) Take everything the rich own -- however you define it -- and subtract it from the Earth.
(2) Now subtract the rich themselves as defined above.
(3) Now divide what's left equally among the remaining people. Call this World#1.
(4) Now put back everything that you subtracted, except for the rich people. Now take everything and again divide it equally and call this World#2.
How different would the life a person in World#1 be from World#2?
The way you worded that seems needlessly confusing, but let's see if we can figure this out: World population is 7 billion. Total worldwide wealth is about $220 trillion. So that would be $31,000 for each man, woman, and child on the planet , if divided equally. The top 10% own 86% of the wealth, which is $189 trillion. So 700 million people control $189 trillion, which would average $270,000 each. Therefore, the bottom 90% owns 14% of the wealth, which is $30.8 trillion. This averages to $49 each.
If all the wealth in the world were divided equally, the bottom 90% would go from an average of $49 to an average of $31,000. That would be PROFOUNDLY life changing.
Sources: http://www.zerohedge.com/news/2013-06-02/its-1-world-who-owns-what-223-trillion-global-wealth
The question should be whether the poor in the US are better off than other DEVELOPED countries, and they are not.
Lets see the numbers
Sure:
Earnings at the 10th percentile as a share of median worker earnings in selected OECD countries, late 2000s
http://www.epi.org/publication/ib339-us-poverty-higher-safety-net-weaker/
Looks like we're actually dead last.
Sure:
Earnings at the 10th percentile as a share of median worker earnings in selected OECD countries, late 2000s
A couple of things leap out at me one is that the statistics are based on household income which is known for misleading numbers. This is because as the divorce rate skyrocketed a couple of decades ago which distorts household income. My theory is that foreign countries were not hit as hard by the Gloria Steinem meme as the US
The second trick that these guys use is that government transfers are not counted as income in the lowest quin tile this includes things like section 8 housing, WIC, food stamps, welfare, healthcare etc. This skews the numbers. I think this gives Mexican immigrants a big advantage in the work place as they are subsidized by the government.
A third thing is that categories are not real flesh and blood people so changes in a category do not reflect real people. This is because people move out of categories very quickly they are Absolutely not static.
Graphs have many inputting factors which do not isolate the things they are purported to show. This is the reason that Austrians don't use them as much as Keynesian who want to solve everything with math. While ignoring logic.
A couple of things leap out at me one is that the statistics are based on household income which is known for misleading numbers. This is because as the divorce rate skyrocketed a couple of decades ago which distorts household income. My theory is that foreign countries were not hit as hard by the Gloria Steinem meme as the US
The second trick that these guys use is that government transfers are not counted as income in the lowest quin tile this includes things like section 8 housing, WIC, food stamps, welfare, healthcare etc. This skews the numbers. I think this gives Mexican immigrants a big advantage in the work place as they are subsidized by the government.
LOL - you are so full of shit. Sure, any data that proves you wrong is a "trick". Riiight... You lobbed a ball at me and I smashed it right back down your throat. Now you're hemming and hawing like a fiend. Just admit you lost the argument - everyone knows it.
Again--completely wrong. You are a poor student of history. Government inaction leads to disparity. Laissez Faire leads to inequality. Unrestrained capitalism naturally leads to inequality.
Hmm, I am pretty sure we have more government intervention today than we did 30, 40 or even 100 years ago. Yet today is the largest wealth disparity this country has ever seen, even larger than the 1920s.
Nope--because history says so. Look at 1929. Look at the history of real wage gains and understand why gains were high in the 1945-1980ish time period, but have basically stopped since
There are a lot of reasons why wages were high from 45-80s. One reason from the 40-70's, U.S. companies didn't have a lot of competition for U.S. consumers (most of that being thanks to the war). For example, The Japanese cars didn't come until the 70s or late 60s to compete, global workers were not competing with U.S. workers, until somewhere around the mid 70s and became worst during the 90s and turn of the century.
Plus I am not even getting into the U.S. dollar and our monetary policy that's a page of their own.
Nope--because history says so. Look at 1929. Look at the history of real wage gains and understand why gains were high in the 1945-1980ish time period, but have basically stopped since
That is a Tat quote somehow that got jacked up
Hmm, I am pretty sure we have more government intervention today than we did
30, 40 or even 100 years ago. Yet today is the largest wealth disparity this
country has ever seen, even larger than the 1920s.
I'm pretty sure we don't. Reagan started the era of deregulation and it has continued for 30+ years.
I'm pretty sure we don't. Reagan started the era of deregulation and it has continued for 30+ years.
That is a fallacy.
That is a fallacy.
No it's not. I didn't say Reagan was the only President responsible--only that the deregulation started under his watch. The last 30+ years has seen significant easing of regulation. Do you disagree?
No it's not. I didn't say Reagan was the only President responsible--only that the deregulation started under his watch. The last 30+ years has seen significant easing of regulation. Do you disagree?
If you bother to read that attachment it explains how Reagan did not start any deregulation. Or you can continue to be willfully ignorant.
If you bother to read that attachment it explains how Reagan did not start
any deregulation. Or you can continue to be willfully ignorant.
I did read it and it says some deregulation started in the late 70s under Carter. So it did not start under Reagan. True. Also says Reagan did not deregulate everything he promised and highlighted some regulations that increased.
Must have been an except from an old opinion piece, so was hard to follow. The bottom line is if you do not think deregulation happened under Reagan, I kindly guide you to, as an example:
1982 - Garn–St. Germain Depository Institutions Act PL 97-320
1982 - Bus Regulatory Reform Act PL 97-261
1989 - Natural Gas Wellhead Decontrol Act PL 101-60
Reagan didn't start deregulation, true. But he wasn't some great bureaucrat either. And his message paved the way for the Republican party platform even today, which has been all over:
1992 - National Energy Policy Act PL 102-486
1996 - Telecommunications Act PL 104-104
1999 - Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act PL 106-102
2000 - The Commodity Futures Modernization Act
2006 - Credit Rating Agency Reform Act of 2006
If you bother to read that attachment it explains how Reagan did not start
any deregulation. Or you can continue to be willfully ignorant.
I read it as well. Like the previous poster said--some deregulation activity started with Carter. It was implemented by Reagan. Some further activity started and was implemented by Reagan. What's your point?
Nitpicking aside--do you agree that the last 30 years have seen a lot of deregulation activity?
do you agree that the last 30 years have seen a lot of deregulation activity?
No quite the opposite.
No quite the opposite.
examples?
Locally look to California and the growth of public sector salaries and benefits, legislators who pass 900 new laws a year.
Federally the government spends 1/3 of the budget with borrowed money.
The average federal worker makes twice what a private sector counterpart makes.
You are now going to say that is not regulation. But these mutts have justify their paycheck somehow. So we end up with seat belt laws that cost $200 or other traffic violations that cost absurd amounts of money. Business is leaving the state in droves.
At the FED level we have Frank Dodd that will be a bigger impediment to commerce than Sarbanes Oxley. Obamacare that will enslave the economy forever. Bush's TARP was the beginning of the end based on pure propaganda. The CRA planted the seed for Greenspan to impale the future of the US.
Locally look to California and the growth of public sector salaries and benefits, legislators who pass 900 new laws a year.
That's not a regulation.
Federally the government spends 1/3 of the budget with borrowed money.
That's not a regulation
The average federal worker makes twice what a private sector counterpart makes.
Not only is that not a regulation, it's a purposely misleading statement.
You are now going to say that is not regulation
You're right. I already did.
At the FED level we have Frank Dodd that will be a bigger impediment to commerce than Sarbanes Oxley. Obamacare that will enslave the economy forever. Bush's TARP was the beginning of the end based on pure propaganda. The CRA planted the seed for Greenspan to impale the future of the US demise.
So, Frank Dodd and Sarbanes Oxley are all you've got? The whole CRA narrative is bullshit and has been disproven many times on here. The fact that you still cite it is proof that you don't care to learn anything, but rather continue to spout your nonsense ad nauseum.
Among the true causes of the housing bubble was Deregulation--namely the Gramm/Leach/Biley Act of 1999. The repeal of Glass Steagall...
Among the true causes of the housing bubble was Deregulation--namely the Gramm/Leach/Biley Act of 1999. The repeal of Glass Steagall...
Doesn't matter had Greenspan not made the money available it would not have happened.
As far as derivatives go they were not regulated by Glass Steagall anyway.
The problem would have not been a problem if Bush and company had simply said to Morgan Stanley and Goldman Sachs you fucked up now you have to go where Lehman went. Previous administration would have done exactly that.
Doesn't matter had Greenspan not made the money available it would not have happened.
Of course it would have--you don't need low interest rates to abandon underwriting practices.
As far as derivatives go they were not regulated by Glass Steagall anyway.
Glass Steagall separated commercial from investment banking.
The problem would have not been a problem if Bush and company had simply said to Morgan Stanley and Goldman Sachs you fucked up now you have to go where Lehman went. Previous administration would have done exactly that.
You're right--it wouldn't have been a problem. It would have been an effing disaster.
Of course it would have--you don't need low interest rates to abandon underwriting practices.
What? If you cannot get the loans it is moot.
As far as derivatives go they were not regulated by Glass Steagall anyway.
Glass Steagall separated commercial from investment banking.
It still did not cover derivatives.
The problem would have not been a problem if Bush and company had simply said to Morgan Stanley and Goldman Sachs you fucked up now you have to go where Lehman went. Previous administration would have done exactly that.
You're right--it wouldn't have been a problem. It would have been an effing disaster.
Nope pure Kool Aid, David Stockman goes over it in excruciating detail in his 700 page book
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