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The tax rates, regulation situation, labor power (leverage) set the stage for whether disparity will grow or fall. Growing money supply simply amplifies the effect.
So you agree then?
Like I told you you're going to get wealth disparity not matter what. A doctor is going to make more than a taxi driver, a business man is going to make more than his workers, that's just the natural order of economics or economic LAW. However, like you said the growing money supply simply amplifies the effect.
Glad you finally agree.
Now just need to get you to agree on the SS ponzi scheme.
That is, the data once again shows your assertion that "money supply growth in the 1960s and 1970s was slow" at least when compared to the 1980s,1990s, and most of the 200s, is false. If money supply growth in the 1960s and 1970s was slow, it was slow in the 1980s and 1990s as well.
Now now, lets be consistent you already used my money supply chart and wanted me to explain why the incomes from the 59 though 80s was declining and I already explain why.
Actually no, the money supply drastically increased in 1983 and has so ever since. In fact the drastic increases occurred in 1983, 2001, and 2008. There was more increases to the money supply from 2001 then 1983 but more increases from the money supply in 2008 than 2001. Even today the money supply is still being ramped up more than it was in 2008. What do all those years have in common? Hint starts with an R.
In fact every time we get a recession more money is needed to stimulate the economy and it worked for quite some time. Now though after the 2008 recession the tactic is no longer working and really is just making matters worst as the dollar falls and prices rise, while yet we're still receiving bad economic data. In order words, after decades of being suppressed by the phony economy, the real economy is starting to show its ugly head and it's not pretty. Soon the money supply will increase even more due to more bad economic data but it still won't turn things around, and the bad economics is due to a multitude of reasons. But unlike in 1983 and 2001 we were able to create booms (which are bubbles) to dig us out of the previous recession. However, we exhausted our monetary strategies in creating 2008 bubble, which is why things are still bad and not improving. In fact economic data have gotten much worst since the reduction of QE, it leads me to believe that the FED will increase their QE at some point.
Like I told you you're going to get wealth disparity not matter what. A
doctor is going to make more than a taxi driver, a business man is going to make
more than his workers, that's just the natural order of economics or economic
LAW. However, like you said the growing money supply simply amplifies the
effect.
I don't think so. You said inflation/the Fed cause disparity. I say they are not the cause. Unless you now agree that taxes, regulation, labor power/leverage are the true causes. If so, then we agree.
Certainly you will always have disparity--the point is that you want to limit it to a reasonable level. Because the economy simply doesn't function well when disparity gets to current levels. That's why we see all the QE nonsense, bubbles and busts, etc.
Now just need to get you to agree on the SS ponzi scheme.
When you figure out the requirements of a Ponzi scheme, then we'll agree.
When you figure out the requirements of a Ponzi scheme, then we'll agree.
Funny your definition and my definition were the same. I don't think it's me who needs to figure out what a ponzi scheme is. I think it's you who needs to figure out how social security works.
Perhaps you should explain that to me, how does SS work in your mind?
I don't think so. You said inflation/the Fed cause disparity. I say they are not the cause. Unless you now agree that taxes, regulation, labor power/leverage are the true causes. If so, then we agree.
Inflation/the Fed is the cause for the wealth disparity we see.
Certainly you will always have disparity--the point is that you want to limit it to a reasonable level. Because the economy simply doesn't function well when disparity gets to current levels. That's why we see all the QE nonsense, bubbles and busts, etc.
This is not true. During the glided age we had the highest economic growth ever known and the standard of living for Americans we much higher than the rest of the world, even higher than Great Britain who was the world's super power at the time.
Even when Rockefeller/Vanderbuilt/Charles Scwab made their millions, Americans then were still better off than the rest of the world because those people made increased everyone's standard of living. Contrary to what was taught to you in school sadly.
Perhaps you should explain that to me, how does SS work in your mind?
Sure--it's called pay as you go. The current workers support the retired workers. Assuming you set up the system to bring in enough revenue to cover the expenses, this system can work forever with a stable population. No growth in payers is necessary.
Inflation/the Fed is the cause for the wealth disparity we see.
That's unfortunate. You appeared to be learning for a second there. So, you've completely forgotten everything you wrote about the effect of taxes on disparity?
That's unfortunate. You appeared to be learning for a second there. So,
you've completely forgotten everything you wrote about the effect of taxes on
disparity?
I'm moving on. Good luck, stay sane.
Inflation/the Fed is the cause for the wealth disparity we see.
That's unfortunate. You appeared to be learning for a second there. So, you've completely forgotten everything you wrote about the effect of taxes on disparity?
What I said was that when the money supply went into overdrive it didn't matter what the tax rates were the wealth disparity increased as well.
Sure--it's called pay as you go. The current workers support the retired workers. Assuming you set up the system to bring in enough revenue to cover the expenses, this system can work forever with a stable population. No growth in payers is necessary.
How can you know the system can work forever? For example, so what happens if the working class falls compared to those who are retired and collecting SS?
What I said was that when the money supply went into overdrive it didn't
matter what the tax rates were the wealth disparity increased as well.
Was there a time when tax rates were high, money supply was high, and disparity increased?
If not, what makes you think this?
How can you know the system can work forever? For example, so what happens if
the working class falls compared to those who are retired and collecting SS?
Then you have a problem. But that's the point. If the population is stable, like I said, then SS works fine forever.
A ponzi scheme will not continue unless there are ever increasing investors.
That's (one of) the difference(s).
Then you have a problem. But that's the point. If the population is stable, like I said, then SS works fine forever.
The population to workers to retirement on SS has been declining. When SS was first introduced the workers to SS ratio was 41 to 4 or 10 to 1 now it's down to about 3 to 1. The worker to retirement on SS population is declining and will probably decline more since the economy isn't getting any better.
A ponzi scheme will not continue unless there are ever increasing investors.
First off, those who pay into SS are investing their money into it, technically they're forced to put their money into it so you can call it a tax. But either way our money is invested into SS but by force. At least with a normal ponzi scheme excluded by the government you have an option not to put your money into it if you think something is fishy.
Nonetheless, it is still a ponzi scheme and still works like a ponzi scheme because it requires more people to place their money into the system in order to pay off those who previously paid into the system and are now collecting money from it.
Just terming the word investment does not change the definition of a ponzi scheme. A ponzi is scheme define as a process, not defined by a term.
Was there a time when tax rates were high, money supply was high, and disparity increased?
If not, what makes you think this?
Yes, I stated that in my post. Back in 1983-1987 the tax rate was 50%, however, the money supply rapidly increased in 1983 and disparity rapidly increased along with it. For 4 years the tax rate stayed at 50%, therefore even though the money supply increased rapidly the wealth gap should had remain steady for four years, however, it didn't it increased along with the rapid money supply increase.
But even when the tax rates dropped down in the 30% and even today 39% the wealth gap went up more much than the decreases or increases of top tax rate, and that's because the money supply increased more and more.
For 4 years the tax rate stayed at 50%, therefore even though the money supply
increased rapidly the wealth gap should had remain steady for four years,
however, it didn't it increased along with the rapid money supply increase.
I think there's a flaw in your thinking. It's not the change in tax rates that causes disparity. If tax rates are too low and they remain at the same level, disparity will increase regardless of what the money supply does.
A few other comments--it's not only income tax rates but also capital gains rates, and very important is the power of labor vs. ownership. This can be quantified by looking at corporate profits.
The population to workers to retirement on SS has been declining. When SS was
first introduced the workers to SS ratio was 41 to 4 or 10 to 1 now it's down to
about 3 to 1. The worker to retirement on SS population is declining and will
probably decline more since the economy isn't getting any better.
Yes--that's partly demogrpahics at work, partily increasing life spans, as well as a poor economy as you state. But that is not relevent as to whether SS is a Ponzi scheme.
Nonetheless, it is still a ponzi scheme and still works like a ponzi scheme
because it requires more people to place their money into the system in order to
pay off those who previously paid into the system and are now collecting money
from it.
Just terming the word investment does not change the definition of a ponzi
scheme. A ponzi is scheme define as a process, not defined by a term.
It doesn't require more people. You're wrong.
The worker to retirement on SS population is declining and will probably decline more since the economy isn't getting any better.
http://research.stlouisfed.org/fred2/series/GINIALLRH
^ that's why, but Austrian economics celebrates that trend.
Certainly you will always have disparity--the point is that you want to limit it to a reasonable level.
http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2012/05/30/us-child-poverty-report-unicef_n_1555533.html
But lets use some math, shall we?
Noooooooooooooooo make it stop, make it stop
The math like the graphs are not a metric for what they are purported to measure. The math is specious.
The math like the graphs are not a metric for what they are purported to
measure. The math is specious.
Does the whole world seem specious to you?
The math like the graphs are not a metric for what they are purported to
measure. The math is specious.
Does the whole world seem specious to you?
Only the parts that refute his scripture. Corrupt archaeologists always find the missing link, no matter if it's a fossil or an old golf ball. Don't insult Indigence with number. Austrians never apply number. Stop it, you're being rude.
I know. I obviously haven't learned my praxeology lesson very well.
Here is the straight dope:
You do realize that Hazlitt here essentially uses the same math I showed you - and he is making the same argument?
He basically says demand for goods * prices for goods = money*velocity. This is exactly what I said.
Money is only a medium of exchange - the prices of goods are affected by the demand for the goods. He is focued on the velocity (and how it is a dependent variable) but the same can be said for the supply of money - it is the other part of the same equation. We choose to increase money supply in lock step with economic growth to avoid deflation and hoarding of money.
He is describing a liquidity trap which is a Keynesian theory.
And when they are tested the best you can come up with is ad hominem
You suck at identifying fallacies.
"You're retarded" is not an ad hominem fallacy, it is verbal abuse.
"That argument is specious because it is from your ilk (Keynesian)" is an ad hominem.
Moron.
He basically says demand for goods * prices for goods = money*velocity.
I don't see it that way. Velocity is not part of the equation as he indicates. Goods and Money are linked but the velocity is not.
Money is only a medium of exchange - the prices of goods are affected by the demand for the goods. He is focued on the velocity (and how it is a dependent variable)
Velocity is not dependent as he indicates in the case of NY vs a smaller city. Or as we see right now as the banks are holding onto money and it is not stimulating the economy.
but the same can be said for the supply of money - it is the other part of the same equation.
Hazlett also indicates this can vary at the start middle and end of an inflationary period. There is no such thing as hording e.g. the banks currently choose to increase their reserves partly because the FED is paying them interest on those funds partly because the can play arbitrage. But is not hoarding they choose to invest that way.
I'm not familiar with the liquidity trap.
It is hard for you to understand but velocity is not tied to money supply. Right now the FED has printed 6 trillion but the velocity is not connected as it is very low. Other times it can be high in deflationary time.
It is hard for you to understand but velocity is not tied to money supply.
It isn't hard for me to understand, I am the one who pointed out to you on another thread that it is a DERIVED STATISTIC. This happened about a month ago. Do you want me to dig it up?
It is simply a calculation of the relationship between two uncorrelated measures, money supply and GDP.
I know you suck at math, but if GDP were held constant, Money supply and money velocity would have perfect negative correlation, by definition. If money supply were held constant - GDP and money velocity would have perfect positive correlation.
If money supply were held constant - GDP and money velocity would have perfect positive correlation.
That does not sound right. Hazlett indicates in the case of speculation the velocity can be high with out goods being increased, correlated to that amount. Or in the late 20s velocity was high even though there was deflation.
I don't see your perspective and his as being compatible.
That does not sound right. Hazlett indicates in the case of speculation the
velocity can be high with out goods being increased, correlated to that amount.
Or in the late 20s velocity was high even though there was deflation.
Here it is, in graph form. Note I have added 10 to gdp otherwise the lines would exactly overlap and you wouldn't be able to see both.
How can that be? That there is no speculation? Do you have a different definition of money supply? Goods and money are correlated. Velocity does not have to be.
How can that be? That there is no speculation? Do you have a different definition of money supply? Goods and money are correlated. Velocity does not have to be.
Someone is about to have an AHA moment here, I think.
It does not reconcile. Does your definition of GDP include speculation?
It does not reconcile. Does your definition of GDP include speculation?
It isn't my definition of GDP. GDP doesn't have multiple definitions.
Depends on the speculation. Real estate, stock market, commodity speculation. Yes.
Bitcoins? I don't know, probably not in some cases.
We choose to increase money supply in lock step with economic growth to avoid deflation and hoarding of money.
So you agree that the money supply is used in the economy but don't agree that it accounts for wealth disparity? So if the money enters the economy then how is it entered and where does it go?
supply and money velocity would have perfect negative correlation, by definition. If money supply were held constant - GDP and money velocity would have perfect positive correlation.
It isn't hard for me to understand, I am the one who pointed out to you on another thread that it is a DERIVED STATISTIC. This happened about a month ago. Do you want me to dig it up?
I agree with Indigenous. Velocity isn't tied to the money supply. Velocity is simply a demand for money or in our case dollars. If people hold onto to their dollars then the demand for dollars goes up and velocity goes down if people got rid of their dollars rather than hold onto them, then the demand for dollars goes down and velocity goes up. The money supply doesn't have an effect on velocity.
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