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Why?
If the corporate tax rates in comparable markets are much lower, why would a company invest into the U.S?
Was it the high tax rate, or a globally interdependent competitive economy?
People keep bringing up the Constitution, but the Constitution was created way before there was a Federal income tax.
But, high corporate rates have actually been shown to lead to more investment as investment is pre-tax. So, investing lowers taxes.
It's pretty interesting that the top 20 best GDPs all occur under high top tax rate environments. Pretty hard to argue that high top tax rates lower growth.
But the Constitution very clearly states that everyone is created equal under the law. Rich people don't get extra votes due to their wealth.
his is completely false.
High corporate tax rates universally suppress capital investment. This is why the EU flounders and why the Asian Tigers were able to build massive economies.
None of them are 90%.
Yes, equal.
Equal would be a flat tax.
Unequal would be a progressive tax scheme.
His wealth is in his ownership of Amazon, the stocks of which have been bid up on the marginal transactions, just like the 5% transactions of housing stock every year decides the price of the housing stock. The owners of stocks and houses (and almost all other productive capitals) are not at all piling money up in their homes equal to their asset value . . .
Nope. Equal is everyone's vote having the same weight in electing officials.
Uh no. The electoral college does not give 1 vote for 1 vote equivalency since California's votes do not give them proportional voting power to say Iowa. This is a built in mechanism to prevent centralized power.
Also the Constitution was not about "equality in votes" it was about protecting individual rights.
Being able to vote someone else's money into your pocket is not equality or individual rights. It's redistribution of someone's else's wealth.
There is exactly 1 election where that matters.
I agree that there was non-cash benefits during those times, but I'm pretty sure that there is a decent correlation between top tax rate and actual amount of tax paid.
But, it's interesting that inequality was much lower during times with high top tax rates. GDP growth was much stronger. Tax burden was spread out much more evenly. There was a much stronger middle class. Real wage growth was much stronger. Families could be comfortable on one income. None of those are coincidental.
Also, if GDP growth is your primary goal, you ought to love the actual Nazi Party, which produced the highest GDP ever recorded in the modern world: 30% annual GDP growth in the first few years after Hitler and Nazi Party took power in Germay
lol--so GDP growth is a bad thing now?
The US averaged 2.8% productivity growth from 1948 - 1973. (In case you forgot--that was when we had high top tax rates.)
https://www.bls.gov/lpc/prodybar.htm
Sorry--just want to make sure I understand this. You are equating someone who maybe lost their job and is having some tough times with a slave?
So, all men aren't created equal then?
Reality saysHis wealth is in his ownership of Amazon, the stocks of which have been bid up on the marginal transactions, just like the 5% transactions of housing stock every year decides the price of the housing stock. The owners of stocks and houses (and almost all other productive capitals) are not at all piling money up in their homes equal to their asset value . . .
That's exactly what I mean. The rich accumulate productive assets while the poor accumulate debts - or at least struggle from pay check to pay check.
Cash is chasing and inflating assets, not products.
Main street deflation is enabling wall street inflation.
This is why inequalities are rising. And it's just not true that the growth tide is raising all boats.
I repeat: the key bottleneck to higher growth is the ability of a large part of the population to spend more.
The industry could and would prod...
Should poor people be allowed to vote on tax policy?
No, there isn't such a correlation.
GDP growth is a bad thing when it is due to government spending and central planning
The 1948-73 real economic growth was much less than the cited 2.8% when we subtract the rapidly expanding government spending. That's explains why the US government had to default on the "Gold Window" by 1973, despite the fraudulent GDP print that you cited.
Ha Ha Ha, providing "data"..
that's awesome.
Sniper says
Ha Ha Ha, providing "data"..
that's awesome.
I know--none of the Trump supporters ever provide data.. It is humorous.
Reality saysNo, there isn't such a correlation.
Yes, there is. Despite your efforts to distract and move the goalposts, the 1% paid a higher % of their income as taxes when rates were 90% then they do now. There is a correlation between one's tax rate and how much tax he pays.
Government spending in the 50s and 60s increased at the same rate as usual. The trend line is not sharper during those decades.
Reality saysGDP growth is a bad thing when it is due to government spending and central planning
Good--since that wasn't the case in the years with high top tax rates and high GDP, then my point stands.
Reality saysThe 1948-73 real economic growth was much less than the cited 2.8% when we subtract the rapidly expanding government spending. That's explains why the US government had to default on the "Gold Window" by 1973, despite the fraudulent GDP print that you cited.
OK then--I've shown data to support my point. You've shown nothing. How about providing some data showing the "true" growth.
Especially considering that government spending was increasing at the same rate back then as it is now.
My apologies for assuming the relevant data is at the finger tip of anyone bothering to look up.
I was pointing out
On top of that, the idea that taxing the top 20% to 1% more would make the economy and society better is simply wrong!
You can look up the growth of federal government spending during 1948-1973. The annual growth rate was around 6% annual rate (a little more than 4x over 25 years), while the GDP (combining both the real economy and the government waste) only grew at about 2.8% annually. That's why, despite your love for those years that you never lived personally, the cumulative effect of those 25 years was the US government having to default on the obligations of the post-WWII world financial system (Bretton Woods) and the Americans on the verge of facing run-away inflation and stagnation
If it's so easily obtained, why would you not post it? Are your fingertips too busy?
The conclusion: despite much higher top tax bracket nominal tax rate, the actual federal government spending as a percentage of the real economy was much much smaller in the 50's than in the 1970's (and later). Concentration of wealth and power is the result of government spending; comes to think of it, that should be obvious: North Korea and Venezuela have much greater government intervention in the economy, resulting in much greater wealth polarization between the billionaire leaders (in USD terms despite being in those poor socialist countries) vs. the actually starving-to-death poor.
On top of that, the idea that taxing the top 20% to 1% more would make the economy and society better is simply wrong!
Nope--it's correct. It is easily seen in the decline in money velocity as more and more money is hoarded at the top. Wealth inequality is the biggest problem in the US economy by a wide margin.
Poor conclusion. Governmental waste is higher now than in either 1950 or 1970 and GDP is much lower. This is because of wealth inequality.
Bottom line: High top tax rate had an effect on inequality which can lead to better economic performance.
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The top 20% of income earners pay 95% of the tax burden in the United States. Poor people overwhelmingly take back from the tax system in terms of benefits (they are not a net contributor to the system). Middle class people tend to wash when it comes contributions vs taking.
My question, is this fair? It seems to me the most fair system would be a simple flat tax across the board with no modifications up or down based on income level.
Should the poor be allowed to vote other people's money to themselves via the government? For instance support for universal health care according to Pew Research was nearly 100% for income levels below $50,000, but only enjoyed a 40% favor with income levels above $200,000. That makes sense, but is it fair?