Crony capitalism = both a corruption of capitalism and a corruption of morals
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2013 May 1, 2:04pm 64,384 views 206 comments
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In the case of AT&T, yes. In the case of Standard Oil, not at all. The fact remains certains markets are inherently prone to monopoly "naturally." Oil is such a market because of where it is mostly, and to a lesser extent (at this point) how much of it remains. One cannot increases competition in oil by putting a well in an area without oil deposits.
What do you think oil exploration companies do? What do you think Occidental did in the Lybian desert in the 1960's? What do you think the drilling of Siberia and Alaska was about? Unless you think Rockerfeller could buy up all the land in the world, someone is bound to find oil on land not owned by Standard Oil. What's truly ironic is that, after the break-up of Standard Oil, the pieces have been merging back in recent decades, now down to two big pieces: Exxon-Mobil and Chevron-Texaco. What's more, Rockerfeller and Morgan interest finally realized that the biggest monopoly is the government, and they teamed up to form the FED, which actually does have the potential of buying all the land in the world! LOL
So, to the first - when? Show an example of the free marketplace disrupting economies of scale.
At one time, Model T accounted for more than half of all cars existed on the planet! Not just in production! Henry Ford built the River Rouge plant (more like a city) in order to capture the ultimate economy of scale. Yet, it turned out to be a financial disaster for Ford . . . technology and consumer taste moved much faster than the fixed capital investment could account for. Not sure why the cussing when the white elephants were mentioned.
Lets chose a modern monopoly - the NFL. Ask Vince McMahon and Donald Trump how their "breakthoughs" did against that monopoly.
What technology breakthrough? NFL by itself is hardly a complete market. The next technology breakthrough will probably be the discovery of long term effect from concussion, and eventually putting the league out of business, due to law suits and youths avoiding the sport.
Hpnestly I cannot think on one monopoly that was broken up by the free market.
Ford's fall from overwhelmingly dominant market position in the late 1920's and 30's;
Kodak's demise;
IBM losing dominance computer manufacturing market;
MSFT losing dominance over OS (what is OS anyway in a google world?)
Just to name a few.
Bellingham Bill
2013 May 9, 5:57am
Unless you think Rockerfeller could buy up all the land in the world, someone is bound to find oil on land not owned by Standard Oil.
you don't understand Rockefeller's game all that much then.
Do some reading outside your Austrian crap.
What's truly ironic is that, after the break-up of Standard Oil, the pieces have
been merging back in recent decades, now down to two big pieces: Exxon-Mobil and
Chevron-Texaco.
Hence the nature of the oil market towards natural monopoly.
The rest of the examples are not monopolies - they cannot set prices above marginal costs without suffering market share.
Market dominance is not a monopoly. You need all three properties of a color to build houses.
The NFL has 100% of the professional football market. That is a monopoly. The USFL and XFL tried to market professional football in the offseason of the NFL. McMahon also tried to tweek the rules to enhance fan enjoyment of the game. Those were the innovations.
What's really funny is in the time of hard currency and laissez-faire capitalism you yearn for, monopolies were more prevalent...
indigenous
2013 May 9, 6:08am
They weren't (aren't). They do not control prices, they had (have) competitive advantage that allow them to have lower marginal cost, therefore they can set prices lower to increase market share.
By that definition who is/was a monopoly?
indigenous
2013 May 9, 6:10am
Do some reading outside your Austrian crap.
I might say the same about Keynesian crap besides it is better alliteration
What is reader digest version of your link above?
Hence the nature of the oil market towards natural monopoly.
Hardly the case. It's just another industry with high fixed cost, and low variable cost. Incumbents would like to have some kind of cartel arrangement for price fixing, but inevitably disrupted by new and cheaper sources of supply in a competitive market place with new opportunities.
The rest of the examples are not monopolies - they cannot set prices above marginal costs without suffering market share.
Then Standard Oil couldn't have been considered a monopoly either even before the break-up. It was often cutting prices to below marginal cost in order to expand market share.
The NFL has 100% of the professional football market.
Professional football is not much a complete market. Audience can easily tune to something else for entertainment, not just football.
What's really funny is in the time of hard currency and laissez-faire capitalism you yearn for, monopolies were more prevalent
How did you come to that conclusion? Neither US Steel nor Standard Oil could be considered monopolies by your own definition: one didn't have enough market share, the other had to cut price below marginal cost to expand market share. Monopoly in its original definition means government-granted privilege to be the exclusive purveyor of certain goods/services. That kind of government granted license is by definition not laissez-faire capitalism.
indigenous
2013 May 9, 8:39am
Of course the banks were effected but since the S & L s had long term loans out with high inflation they were much more subject to the problem.
Simple high inflation, S & L s stuck with loans that paid a low interest rate. Is that hard to understand?
How did you come to that conclusion? Neither US Steel nor Standard Oil could be considered monopolies by your own definition: one didn't have enough market share, the other had to cut price below marginal cost to expand market share.
I already said US Steel was not a Monopoly. Sherman did not break it up. Standard Oil was a monopoly and reached this status by cutting prices. Rockefeller held 90% market share for 25 years - you really think he was undercutting prices over those years? He was dictating the market price.
His anti-competitive practices slowed down after Standard Ohio and New Jersey we split off - he saw the writing on the wall after that and Sherman and tried to prevent the eventual break-up.
But make no mistake, starting to undercut his competition in the late 1860s led to his 90% market share by 1879. From there he made hefty profits for the rest of the century.
Had Sherman not been passed in 1890 and Rockefeller backed off his anti-competitive tactics to avoid breakup, they would still be dominant in the marketplace.
The way it was predicted was though the use of praxeology.
LOL. I have said it before - I am not smart enough to follow Hayek in the abstract but I can add the numbers myself.
indigenous
2013 May 9, 9:26am
The way it was predicted was though the use of praxeology.
LOL. I have said it before - I am not smart enough to follow Hayek in the abstract but I can add the numbers myself.
But you can follow Krugman?
Rockefeller held 90% market share for 25 years - you really think he was undercutting prices over those years? He was dictating the market price.
Standard Oil was not founded until 1870. It was simply an superbly managed early mover in a brand new industry at the time. Kerosene was the primary product before 1911 (when the breakup was ordered), and kerosene price was cut by more than 70% in those decades. On the even of the breakup, Standard Oil only controlled 11% of oil exploration and crude production. While it did account for 90% of refining, half of the refined products were exports, and Standard Oil was more or less the only major exporter of refined oil products (kerosene) as it had literally created the kerosene lamp market in the far east.
At a time when most oil refiners tossed away gasoline, Standard was using the waste fuel for running its own machinery and heating. It also launched the petrochemical industry in the US, making highly profitable consumer products from crude oil that enabled it to under-price competition for kerosene, the main refined product from crude oil at that time.
The whole anti-trust litigation against Standard Oil was rather similar to the government case against IBM in the 70's and against MSFT in the 90's . . . companies that had experienced early mover advantages in a new and rapidly growing industry, and were just about to be eclipsed by new technological development as the industry matured. In the case of Standard, it lost dominance in the world market to much cheaper Russian production at the end of 19th century, just before the government brought the anti-trust case that eventually led to the break-up.
It was simply an superbly managed early mover in a brand new industry at the time. Kerosene was the primary product before 1911 (when the breakup was ordered), and kerosene price was cut by more than 70% in those decades.
Do some research. The price for refined products fell yes, but MARGINS certainly did not. Despite gained increased horizontal efficiencies, margins never fell below the point that it was forced into by competition prior to reaching monopoly status for over ten years after obtaining monopoly status, and they frequently increased. This is substantial considering Standard sold 10B gallons of kerosene in these ten years.
Combine this with the ability to depress the price of crude, despite holding only 11% of deposits as you mentioned. It matters not - at 90% refining monopoly, he could control price of crude by simply not buying. He was the ONLY buyer.
As you mentioned Russian and German refineries coming online in the 1890s began to chip away at that market share and margin - but he still had huge market share (over 60% i believe) until the breakup.
Do some research. The price for refined products fell yes, but MARGINS certainly did not.
So what? The oil industry was still very young. Prices being cut by more than half was far more important to the consumers of kerosene than some dumb f*ck wasting gasoline and unable to maintain a high margin. Do your own damn research. Since when was giving a shop away a condition of doing business in the US? The real reason from the complaints from the competitors was actually that Standard wasn't charging enough Margin! The price was so low as to put the other "honest businessmen" out of business! Standard Oil was simply the most efficient producer in the US. Many former competitors decided to join Standard Oil after being shown the operating cost book at Standard.
By 1911, competitors was catching up to Standard Oil, which had seen its refining market share dropping to 60% in the US (half of which was for export, so really only little more than 30% share of US consumption).
tatupu70
2013 May 10, 1:44am
When you put that $5 gazillion under your mattress, you removed that $5 gazillion from money supply in the market place. It is no different from if you had burned it so long as you don't take it back out to spend it.
OK--then your definition of money supply is basically worthless, because it cannot be measured.
So you are telling me Warren Buffet is worth $50billion only after he sold everything and hold $50billion in paper cash in his hands?
I'm telling you Warren Buffet's estimated worth is $50 billion. And that's not the same as having $50 billion in cash.
When you put that $5 gazillion under your mattress, you removed that $5 gazillion from money supply in the market place. It is no different from if you had burned it so long as you don't take it back out to spend it.
OK--then your definition of money supply is basically worthless, because it cannot be measured.
You are just another puppy lost to the number fetish. The concept of money supply, just like the concept of economy size, are not directly accurately measurable. Otherwise, there wouldn't be so many different M numbers, each trying to approximate the _differential_ in change of money supply. Yes, in case you did not know, all the M numbers or GDP numbers are not considered actual size measures, but the changes in numbers allegedly reflect the changes in the underlying conceptual reality.
Someone putting a wad of cash under the mattress for the long term, or drop the wad in a lake, or burn the wad, is obviously removing the wad from money supply in the economy. Government econometricians' inability to account for it, unlike the torn and worn notes recycled at the mint, is a flaw in methodology . . . does not change the fact that money removed by private sector (by deliberate act or accident) has the same effect on money supply as money removed by the mint/treasury/FED.
tatupu70
2013 May 10, 2:28am
You are just another puppy lost to the number fetish.
lol--yes, us lost puppies that prefer facts, numbers, data. You know--commonly called supporting evidence. Obviously lack of such doesn't particularly worry you.
Just out of curiosity--when does it enter the money supply? When I put it in my wallet? When I spend it? What if I go to the Porsche dealer with $200K but decide against buying--is that $200K in the money supply while I was at the dealer?
So what? The oil industry was still very young. Prices being cut by more than
half was far more important to the consumers of kerosene than some dumb f*ck
wasting gasoline and unable to maintain a high margin.
Competition forces falling margins. The fact Standard was able to maintain margins is the benefit of holding a monopoly. Reality says
Standard Oil was simply the most efficient producer in the US. Many former
competitors decided to join Standard Oil after being shown the operating cost
book at Standard.
Standard was the most efficient because of horizontal efficiencies with shipping. What are you arguing, that Standard's practicies were not monopolistic?
Reality says
Do your own damn research.
It will be better than the research on Standard you swiped from wikipedia.
Competition forces falling margins. The fact Standard was able to maintain margins is the benefit of holding a monopoly.
Not necessarily true in a rapidly growing industry where a constant stream of new customers could still be found every day. The oil industry was certainly a rapidly growing one in the late 19th century. After 1900 or so, Standard Oil maintained margin by losing worldwide market share.
Standard was the most efficient because of horizontal efficiencies with shipping. What are you arguing, that Standard's practicies were not monopolistic?
Standard also generated far less waste than most its competitors in the first couple decades of its existence. It was also pioneer of highly profitable petrochemical industry in the US, thereby reducing the adjust production cost of the main line product kerosene. After 1900, competitors were catching up both in material utilization and forming their own horizontal shipping collaborations.
After 1900, competitors were catching up both in material utilization and
forming their own horizontal shipping collaborations.
After Standrad "chilled out" on the monopolistic practices following the passing of Sherman in 1890.
After 1900 or so, Standard Oil maintained margin by losing worldwide market
share.
They didn't maintain margin, it fell overall, but they didn't lower margin to be anticompetitive due to Sherman.
After 1900, competitors were catching up both in material utilization and
forming their own horizontal shipping collaborations.After Standrad "chilled out" on the monopolistic practices following the passing of Sherman in 1890.
You probably also think the decline of MSFT and passing of leadership to Google and Apple were due to government anti-trust suit in the early 1990's. LOL. Apparently, it doesn't occur to you that as a company becomes industrial leader for a decade or two, it starts to attract dead weight sinecure seekers who signed up for "job security" just like IBM used to have a reputation for never laying off anyone (before the 1990's). Do you think the decline of IBM and passing leadership to MSFT and Apple in the 80's was also due to government anti-trust suits the decade before?
The result of those sinecure seekers is that the company then lose its edge. Just look at MSFT, its Windows Mobile and Windows 8 fiasco. The company has become too ponderous to execute. The same thing was happening to Standard after the first couple decades of rapid growth. While it still had dominant share of the old oil fields in the east, it lost to competitors left and right in the much faster growing western states.
They didn't maintain margin, it fell overall, but they didn't lower margin to be anticompetitive due to Sherman.
It was beaten domestically by competition in the western states, and internationally by German refiners and Russian oil explorers.
It is apparently a coincidence that ~10 years after major ant-trust legislation was passed and numerous threats were made to Standard for their anti-competitive practices they STOPPED acquiring all of their competitors and/or running them into the ground.
Perhaps the competitors in the western states and overseas being just as efficient as Standard, which itself had declined in efficiency due to corporate bloat, had much to do with it. Like I said, do you think the MSFT woes with Windows Mobile and Windows8 in the past decade are due to government anti-trust threats a decade earlier? Or largely due to the big corporation having become a bureaucracy and hence no longer having the efficiency that it had earlier.
Nope.
You probably meant this but still no. Definately increasing.
?g=ijN
corporate bloat
There is literally no proof of this existing in Standard or even commonly. You speak of it like it is inevitable.
tatupu70
2013 May 10, 5:23am
Assigning a number doesn't necessary clarify the issue
True, but having no way to quantify makes a measurement entirely useless. How can you tell if it's rising, falling, or staying the same?
It starts to affect your behavior when you took off to the Porsche dealership with the intention of spending the money.
So, like I said, under your definition, money supply is impossible to measure. And therefore, inflation is impossible to measure. Which makes it a useless concept.
If you can't measure it, then how can you tell if it has any effect? Or what causes it?
Bellingham Bill
2013 May 10, 5:55am
or salaries of the CEO's of the 327 largest companies being the same as that of all CEO's.
The Fortune 500 clears $11.75T in revenue
http://money.cnn.com/magazines/fortune/fortune500/2012/full_list/index.html
73% of total US GDP.
Throw out your clowncar rightwing economics books and learn some real economics:
The Fortune 500 clears $11.75T in revenue
http://money.cnn.com/magazines/fortune/fortune500/2012/full_list/index.html
73% of total US GDP.
Do you happen to know that only corporate profit, not revenue, contribute to GDP?
Throw out your clowncar rightwing economics books and learn some real economics:
Of course I know what pareto-principle is. I also have enough common sense to realize that Fortunate 500 companies do not generate 73% of total US GDP.
Do you happen to know that only corporate profit, not revenue, contribute to
GDP?
Value add would probably include more than profit. Wages most probably. Fees paid to vendors perhaps. A percentage of capital investments maybe.
Is this in reference to domestic products or foreign produced products? It makes sense that if they were foreign produced that they would not be counted. But it does not make sense if they were produced domestically they would not be included?
Unless the car maker makes a profit, the value of the car in GDP is already fully accounted for by the input factors: the wages, the parts vendors etc. So nothing is contributed by the car maker itself unless there is added value, i.e. profit.
how is that fundamentally different from a gang of vandals?
This is not related to my point. It wouldn't be, btw. I was simply contradicting your point that "only corporate profit" contributes to GDP.
Are you claiming that if every unprofitable corporation were eliminated, there would be no net effect on GDP?
You know there are unstream and downstream relationships that would be damaged. You know the workers unemployment (if even temporary) would damage GDP. So just admit a Company contributes more to GDP than simply its profit.
Are you claiming that if every unprofitable corporation were eliminated, there would be no net effect on GDP?
There would be a positive net effect on GDP. That's literally what the math says.
You know there are unstream and downstream relationships that would be damaged. You know the workers unemployment (if even temporary) would damage GDP. So just admit a Company contributes more to GDP than simply its profit.
That's a different issue altogether. You are assuming the workers and intermediate products vendors can not find alternative customers. Regardless they can or can not, the contribution from a money losing company to GDP is literally negative. That's just simple arithmetic.
PeopleUnited
2013 May 12, 10:13am
I wog said:
"There are three ways to put money into the hands of consumers:
1. debt
2. wages
3. government entitlements
If you know of a 4th way, please tell me."
and I gave three examples of other sources of money for consumers to spend.
4. interest
5. rent
6. sales of property/goods
to which I wog replied:
"Absolutely not. Interest is money moving up the scale. It's earnings on capital. Same with commerce. At best it's in the same category as wages. Sale of property and goods is only an increase in spending money if it's done at a profit and then again it's earnings on capital."
so in other words....
in I wog world. Wages = interest
in I wog world: Wages = Rent
in I wog world: Wages = selling property
in I wog world there are only three ways that consumers get money, borrow it, earn an hourly wage, government gives it to you.
I am glad we don't live in I wog world!
PeopleUnited
2013 May 12, 10:16am
Oh,
and here is one more way to increase demand by consumers via lower costs and/or higher incomes.
7. lower or eliminate income/sales taxes
C Boy
2013 May 12, 11:40am
Oh,
and here is one more way to increase demand by consumers via lower costs and/or higher incomes.
7. lower or eliminate income/sales taxes
8. Allow the production and sale of illegal goods( eg absinthe, sassafras oil, etc )
9. Eliminate quotas( eg sugar, ethanol ,etc )
PeopleUnited
2013 May 12, 4:17pm
In another thread I wog said: "EVERYONE CALLED THE FUCKING REAL ESTATE BUBBLE!!!! The reason it continued for as long as it did was people who DIDN'T CARE it was a bubble were giving away free mortgage money. NOT investors."
I especially like how you admit that banks were giving away free money, money which they essentially created out of thin air mind you. Brilliant demonstration of how the supply is VERY flexible under our current Keynsian Nightmare system of fractional reserve banking bets backed by the FED.
tatupu70
2013 May 12, 9:07pm
I don't know any American with no children who is willing and able to work that
cannot earn enough to have the necessities and a little discretionary income to
boot.
You need to get out more.
tatupu70
2013 May 13, 3:31am
If what Keynes said is true then there would have been no economy before central
bankers.
What did Keynes say?
tatupu70
2013 May 13, 3:46am
Then tell us what Keynes said
Keynes said a whole bunch of things. However, I'm trying to find out to what you are specifically referring when you said this:
If what Keynes said is true then there would have been no economy before central
bankers.
I'm assuming there is something he said that made you write that...
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