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I'm not understanding the problem with this. If they have an estimate of "predicted deaths" that exists with an expected range, then the "actual deaths" fall into or below that range, wouldn't that mean there was no "excess" because the deaths were within the predicted range?
I'm not very clever though, so if someone could explain the importance of this to me, I would greatly appreciate it.
Interesting. Any thoughts as to why they do this?
I'm not understanding the problem with this. If they have an estimate of "predicted deaths" that exists with an expected range, then the "actual deaths" fall into or below that range, wouldn't that mean there was no "excess" because the deaths were within the predicted range?
I'm not understanding the problem with this. If they have an estimate of "predicted deaths" that exists with an expected range,
I found something very interesting when looking into excess death statistics on the CDC's website. According to a footnote, excess deaths are added up by reporting area weekly and added to a cumulative running total of excess deaths. However, in areas where excess deaths fall BELOW the historical and expected average, they plug in the number ZERO for excess deaths.
Therefore, any "Excess deaths" statistic you see is artificially high, because they're openly only counting areas where excess deaths are above average.
Here's the exact wording of their accounting sorcery:
Number of excess deaths: A range of estimates for the number of excess deaths was calculated as the difference between the observed count and one of two thresholds (either the average expected count or the upper bound threshold), by week and jurisdiction. Negative values, where the observed count fell below the threshold, were set to zero.