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The Mortgage Pit


               
2011 Jul 10, 9:17am   4,856 views  18 comments

by madhatter   follow (0)  

The Mortgage Pit
How often have you heard proud homeowners say: “In a few years, my mortgage will be paid off.” But that is exactly when the homeowner's exposure to risk is greatest. The bank makes no distinction between a default in the early stages of a mortgage, when very little equity is paid and the outstanding principal balance is large, versus a default close to the end, when almost all the money borrowed has been paid back. The bank can foreclose at any time after default.
As a matter of fact, the bank likes nothing better than to foreclose on a house where the borrower holds a lot of equity. It can easily sell the property for at least the outstanding balance on the loan and be guaranteed a profit. I have developed a compelling illustration if you are interested.

I use the example of a 30 yr $300,000 mortgage at amortized at 4%/yr interest.
The payment works out to be 1432 per month.

outstanding principal interest total
balance paid paid paid
After one year 294,716 5,284 11,904 17,188
After 5 years 271,343 28,657 57,277 85,934
After 25 years 77,770 222,230 227,403 449,633

Using the above table as a guide, we will analyze the risks borne by the bank and the buyer/borrower
To keep things simple, I ignore all the fees, penalties, points, charges and commissions the bank has already collected.

Variation one: Default with No down payment on loan of $300,000 (Assume a non recourse state)

Buyer defaults after one year: The bank has to sell for 283,000
(outstanding balance minus interest paid) at a foreclosure sale in order to break even
The buyer loses 17,188 (principal plus interest paid),
Buyer defaults after five years: The bank must sell for 214,066
The buyer loses 85,934
After 25 years: The bank can't lose
The buyer loses 449,633

Variation two: 20% down, purchase price is 360,000 (numbers rounded)
Buyer defaults after one year:The bank breaks even at a sale price of f 223,000 because The buyer loses an extra 60,000, for a total of 77,000
after 5 years: The bank has to net 154,000
The buyer loses 146.000.
Buyer defaults after 25 years: The bank can give it away
What about the buyer? You figure it out. Hint: He loses over $0.5 million bucks!
No wonder the bank demands a down payment!
It can sell at a 60% discount in the worst case:. default after one year, and not lose any money. On top of that, it gets to keep all the fees etc. the buyer/borrower paid up front.

Question: Who carries the great majority of the risk? Answer: YOU. That is important, because it lets the bank enter into other far more risky contracts with far higher returns. Fine if they work out, otherwise the taxpayer is asked to foot the bill.

Now the sad part: I have been buying and selling real estate for many years, but it has taken me until now to produce this analysis. Better late than never!

Hypothetical case:
You have paid for 25 years and face an emergency
Solution: Don't waste your time with your bank, trying to get a loan modification.
Refinance (example $80,000) with another lender. Pay off the old mortgage. before your problems start.

PS If you want to know whose money you are actually borrowing read Elliott Wave
Quoted from Patrick.net - MCM Singer June 20, 2011
“Banks do not really lend you the money. They only pretend to lend you the money as if they actually have that money in reserve when they actually do not. They are allowed to lend I believe 8 times more than they actually have in reserve.
This effectively means that a bank is pretending to lend you money which you believe is actually available in the monetary supply within a economic system - when truthfully that money never existed in the first place - it was electronically credited out of nowhere - basically electronically printed when you were approved for a loan which you applied for (mortgage, college loan or business funding) - and then electronically credited to you.
You are basically fooled into believing you owe the bank money - when you don't because they didn't actually take that money available in the monetary supply within a economic system - instead they electronically printed about 80% of your "loan" themselves - while they only really actually lent you 10-20% of the "loan". “

#housing

Comments 1 - 18 of 18        Search these comments

1   Clara   2011 Jul 10, 9:56am  

And, the moral of the story is?

2   madhatter   2011 Jul 10, 10:41am  

My table columns didn't come out quite right - I hope people can understand To Masayako 2456 - borrow real money from real people is the moral!

3   Armando148   2011 Jul 10, 11:00am  

Your numbers may be a bit off, but your premise is correct in my opinion.

I remember some years back I heard a shocking statistic that only 2% of Americans actually own their own home. I think if you have an outstanding mortgage on your home it cannot be considered true "ownership" or at least I never have, it's more of a rent to own type relationship to me it would seem.

Of course Americans believe it's their own home because the deed may be in their name, never mind that the vast majority of foreclosures by a bank are succesful.

This is a very good sign, everyday more and more people are waking up.......

4   corntrollio   2011 Jul 11, 4:24am  

madhatter says

As a matter of fact, the bank likes nothing better than to foreclose on a house where the borrower holds a lot of equity. It can easily sell the property for at least the outstanding balance on the loan and be guaranteed a profit.

Will you please stop writing posts without being informed? First you write that private investors with massive cash will loan money at 2% for unrelated/unaffiliated people to buy houses, and now you're suggesting other bizarre things:

1) that the equity of redemption doesn't exist
2) that people who necessarily must default 25 years into a 30-year fixed loan don't realize that they could sell their home as a remedy

5   madhatter   2011 Jul 11, 7:42am  

In answer to some criticisms about my conclusions:

The owner, after 25 years of paying, having borrowed $300,000, does not want to default but to sell instead:
Assumption: there has been no down payment on the loan
Sold after 25 years when there has been no annual appreciation - (of course any down payment must be added to the loss below!)

Selling price $300,000
Original purchase costs ($10,000)
Selling costs: ($30,000) - includes 6%commission
Unpaid principal ($78,000)
Interest already paid ($227,000)
Loss: ($45,000)

Conclusion: Appreciation over 25 yr MUST happen if you are not to lose money - real appreciation, that is, not false appreciation due to inflation.

If prices decline??? You do the math. It is obvious that you must lose even more and probably a lot more!

6   madhatter   2011 Jul 12, 12:50pm  

I have no idea what $300,000 today will be worth 25 years from now although it is possible to look back, and by one inflation measure (the change in the Consumer Price Index) $600,000 today will buy what only $300,000 could buy 25 years ago.

I’m not attempting to write an all-encompassing treatise about the housing market.
Even if this were possible, it would fill a library and nobody would read it.

I cannot predict future inflation-deflation rates, future supply-demand or regional property taxes, tax deductions for individual cases, future local rents, future real estate appreciation or depreciation etc. - the future is simply not predictable. Each of these factors and many more are important. I’m simply applying a concept I learned in school - break down a complex problem and examine it one piece at a time.

It is up to the individual to make assumptions and apply his or her personal parameters to gain insight and help make decisions based on incomplete information. Good luck!

7   Katy Perry   2011 Jul 12, 2:21pm  

How many of you still tell people after years of paying a mortgage that the price you paid is the number the Realtard told you your house was worth when purchased. ,..um anyone ever look at the number on the back pages of the loan paper work.
that's what you're paying. it's a lot larger and I never hear anyone use that number which is the real price you've signed up for., the one you're going to pay over time.

my car was 25k sticker price. but when someone asks me I tell them I paid $32,500 at the end of it all. because i don't lie to myself like a home borrower does.

8   Hysteresis   2011 Jul 12, 2:26pm  

Katy Perry says

How many of you still tell people after years of paying a mortgage that the price you paid is the number the Realtard told you your house was worth when purchased. ,..um anyone ever look at the number on the back pages of the loan paper work.

that's what you're paying. it's a lot larger and I never hear anyone use that number which is the real price you've signed up for., the one you're going to pay over time.

my car was 25k sticker price. but when someone asks me I tell them I paid $32,500 at the end of it all. because i don't lie to myself like a home borrower does.

/slowcap

excellent point

9   tatupu70   2011 Jul 12, 10:35pm  

Austinhousingbubble says

In my experience, rents often remain static for years and even occasionally go down. There's also the the ability to move to another rental with relative ease compared to a permanent address.
Meanwhile, total housing costs do not remain static if we include insurance costs and property taxes. I have friends who bought in the early nineties and their taxes and insurance are more now than the prinicipal and interest payments on their houses.

What have rents done since the early nineties? That would be the proper comparison.

10   Austinhousingbubble   2011 Jul 12, 11:12pm  

It's probably regional to some degree. Personally speaking, from 1994 to 2003, my rent went never went up once; from 2003 to 2008, it went up about 150 bucks; from 2008 to present, it's remained static. Maybe that's unusual -- but I honestly don't know.

I think an even more germane question may be - how much money would someone have saved by renting an equivalent structure starting in the early nineties, as opposed to buying the same? I know I saved a lot.

My point was this: at least where I am, the monthly mortgage payment is not static between payment one, and payment three-sixty. YMMV.

11   tatupu70   2011 Jul 12, 11:58pm  

Austinhousingbubble says

I think an even more germane question may be - how much money would someone have saved by renting an equivalent structure starting in the early nineties, as opposed to buying the same? I know I saved a lot.

You are the exception then. My guess is that 95% plus of people that purchased in the early nineties and have remained there til now are ahead of renters. I'd say most are WAY ahead.

12   Austinhousingbubble   2011 Jul 13, 12:20am  

If we're both guessing, and my guess is as good as yours, then it's not certain that my situation is exceptional. It may be, but again...I don't know. I think Patrick suggested that his rent had also remained at par for the last several years.

What I do know is that if my friends had tied up that same downpayment money in Dell stock circa 95, they'd have done much better.

13   tatupu70   2011 Jul 13, 12:24am  

Austinhousingbubble says

What I do know is that if my friends had tied up that same downpayment money in Dell stock circa 95, they'd have done much better.

lol. And if they had tied it up in Blockbuster stock, then they'd have done much worse.

14   sf.irony   2011 Jul 13, 2:14am  

Katy Perry says

because i don't lie to myself like a home borrower does.

LOL. good point.

15   therapy   2011 Jul 13, 3:50am  

Katy Perry says

How many of you still tell people after years of paying a mortgage that the price you paid is the number the Realtard told you your house was worth when purchased. ,..um anyone ever look at the number on the back pages of the loan paper work.

that's what you're paying. it's a lot larger and I never hear anyone use that number which is the real price you've signed up for., the one you're going to pay over time.

my car was 25k sticker price. but when someone asks me I tell them I paid $32,500 at the end of it all. because i don't lie to myself like a home borrower does.

Haha - this is a good point, but a bit disingenuous. With so many different factors going into it, if somebody asks "Hey, nice car/house, mind if I ask how much it cost you?" you don't go into detailed answer about your credit history and how it affected your loan interest rate and then explain that because you paid it off in 2/3 the time you saved some money, etc.

I bought my truck in 2007 - 5 years, 0% financing. Out-the-door I borrowed $31,000 with no interest. Sticker price was $39k, I put $2k down. So when somebody asks me how much my truck cost me, I can say "$33k".

My wife's car, we bought in 2009 for $15k, used. Interest rate was 6%. When somebody asks me how much it cost, I don't reply with $17,500 or whatever. I say "I bought it for $15k" because that was the sale price. Whether I paid cash or borrowed the money, I bought the car at that price.

The money I'm paying back in interest isn't for the car, it's for the convenience of borrowing the money.

I think that's an important distinction. When you buy a $500k house @ 5%, you're doing it likely because you don't have $500k in cash. (or you do, but you think you can make a better than 5% return on it)

The extra $450-$500k in interest charges over the 30 year life of the loan are convenience fees.

So yeah, total cost of ownership should include those numbers, but the price of the initial item stays the same.

Which is why they advertise things with those prices - because your method of buying it and mine could be completely different and we need to compare apples to apples.

16   corntrollio   2011 Jul 13, 4:09am  

madhatter says

I’m simply applying a concept I learned in school - break down a complex problem and examine it one piece at a time.

But you didn't do it correctly. Your original post completely ignores the equity of redemption and remedies beyond foreclosure, as I mentioned above. I'm not sure if it's because you don't understand how foreclosure works, or something else.

In addition, if someone is 25 years into a loan, inflation likely helps them out quite a bit since their mortgage payment may have been fixed for the last 25 years.

17   Payoff2011   2011 Jul 13, 6:37am  

I don’t have to speculate. We purchased our current home in 1991. That’s 20 years for the math challenged. Original payoff date would have been 2021. We refi’d twice to reduce interest rates. We have also been making extra principal payments since 2008. Our last payment is planned for December 2011. The cost of interest listed on the initial 30 year mortgage is irrelevant.

Default? I don’t think so. Even when we were struggling from 2004-2007 due to husband’s increasing disability, our choice was to sell, not default. Husband was approved for SSI, so we canceled the listing agreement. In 2007, we had about 75% equity from our down payment, plus 16 years of payments, and appreciation. Yes, that appreciation is much lower today, but we will have 100% equity 5 months from now.

18   corntrollio   2011 Jul 13, 6:41am  

Payoff2011 says

Even when we were struggling from 2004-2007 due to husband’s increasing disability, our choice was to sell, not default.

Exactly! Why would you?

Again, I don't think the OP knows about foreclosure, because the bank would have to give you the equity in excess of the amount owed anyway. If you can sell it yourself, and the bank would certainly encourage it in this case, everyone is better off -- the bank doesn't take on the liability and cost and time wasted, and you get more money in the form of your equity.

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