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but the NRA is not far behind.
The 2nd Amendment never mentions the word gun at all.
The US has already seen fit to ban some weapons of offence so the 2nd Amendment clearly has not been interpreted strictly as meaning that the US cannot ban all "arms". Therefore, the 2nd Amendment does not guarantee citizens the right to own whatever weapons they choose.
So it then becomes a question of which weapons should be banned, which should be strictly regulated, and which should be lightly regulated or not at all.
we should weigh an individual's right with society's right. When looked at in that manner, it becomes very difficult to justify why fully automatic or semi automatic rifles should be allowed. What purpose do they serve an individual?
And why would that purpose outweigh the extreme damage those weapons have cased society??
Exactly, when the 2nd was written, the available "arm" was a musket. Both the militia and the government had access to the SAME weapons.
Where does it say in the 2nd that government can decide which "arm" is legal for the militia?
Actually no, there is NO question. It's very clearly stated in the 2nd, "shall not be infringed". What does "infringed" mean?
Since when does society decide what a individual can have or do.
What "extreme damage" are you talking about?
SCOTUS already asked about "keep and bear" and it was clear the majority views it the same as it does in every other circumstance.
Repeal the 2nd Amendment. If it's truly that unpopular, shouldn't be a problem.
Sniper says
Actually no, there is NO question. It's very clearly stated in the 2nd, "shall not be infringed". What does "infringed" mean?
Interesting. So, you believe that the 2nd Amendment guarantees citizens the right to own any weapon then?
Sniper saysWhat "extreme damage" are you talking about?
Deaths of school children.
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"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Couple things to note in there:
1. The specific mention of a militia being the reason for the need to bear arms.
2. The 2nd Amendment never mentions the word gun at all.
So, what exactly is the definition of "arms"?
In 1755 Dr. Johnson’s Dictionary of the English Language was first published. It defined “arms” as “weapons of offence, or armour of defence.”
Weapons of offence would seem to include pretty much anything and everything, from knives to nuclear weapons. The US has already seen fit to ban some weapons of offence so the 2nd Amendment clearly has not been interpreted strictly as meaning that the US cannot ban all "arms". Therefore, the 2nd Amendment does not guarantee citizens the right to own whatever weapons they choose.
So it then becomes a question of which weapons should be banned, which should be strictly regulated, and which should be lightly regulated or not at all. Like anything else, we should weigh an individual's right with society's right. When looked at in that manner, it becomes very difficult to justify why fully automatic or semi automatic rifles should be allowed. What purpose do they serve an individual? And why would that purpose outweigh the extreme damage those weapons have cased society??
Patrick thinks the Chamber of Commerce is the worst organization, and he may be correct, but the NRA is not far behind.